Wednesday, March 22, 2006

Men's Right To Choose

What happens when a man tells his girlfriend he has had a vasectomy and is very much sterile, when in actuality he is not. If she gets pregnant, then he is the one to blame for lying to her about his fertility, right?

But what happens when the roles are reversed? Who is to blame if the woman claimed that she is infertile because of a medical condition, when she actually wasn't? Who is to blame for the pregnancy then?

Matt Dubay is saying that situation happened to him, and he shouldn't have to pay child support because he feels in essence that he is the victim of entrapment. Many guys side with him, but most women say he is the one to blame.

I have one question for his now ex-girlfriend, "Do you actually have a medical condition that would prevent pregnancy?" If the answer to that is no, then I feel like it should be her fault. She intentionally deceived him, telling him that she was infertile after he had said many times that he did not want a child.

I am still on the rail about having to pay child support, along with many of the other issues in this, but I just want to ask, "Why is the guy always the one at fault?" And "What say do men have in reproductive rights?"